So, what is the difference
between inertial mass and gravitational mass?
Newton's first principle is
the definition of inertia.
An object in uniform motion
will remain in uniform motion until acted upon by an external
force.
But most scientists relate the
inertial mass with, F= ma; and gravitational mass, with F=GMm/R2.
So how can inertial mass
be related to Newton's second principle? It is a statement of an object in
acceleration. Inertia is about objects at rest or at constant velocity.
By the way I do not agree
with you that inertial motion continues until....
Because gravity is always
acting on you and me. We don't have to wait.
Thanks for the interesting
question Bob.
First, some review
from Nagel (1961, p. 252-4):
Newton’s
First Law of Motion
Every
body perseveres in its state of rest, or of uniform motion in a right line,
unless
it is compelled to change that state by forces impressed thereon.
Newton’s
Second Law of Motion
The
alteration of motion is ever proportional to the motive force impressed; and
is
made in the direction of the right line in which that force is impressed.
I
like your substitution of the “until” for “unless.” Unlike, Newton, that means
you are assuming that the universe is infinite. Also, as you know, there really
are no forces, only other microcosms in motion. Thus, I would rewrite the First and
Second Laws as:
Neomechanical
Version of Newton’s First Law of Motion
Every
microcosm perseveres in its state of rest, or of uniform motion in a right
line, until it is compelled to change that state by collisions with other microcosms.
Neomechanical
Version of Newton’s Second Law of Motion
The
alteration of motion is ever proportional to the mass and velocity of the microcosm impressed; and is made in the direction of the right line in which
that microcosm is impressed.
Now
to relate the two laws. Actually, I believe that most of us would consider the
First Law to be a description of momentum, P = mv, not force, F = ma. Once in
motion, Newton’s body just keeps travelling through perfectly empty space. The First
Law is not a causal law. It is only an observation (albeit the most important
one ever made).
The Second
Law describes what a cause is. For there to be a cause, at least two microcosms
must collide. This is the guts of classical mechanics and, now, neomechanics. It
is this belief, for instance, that makes us reject all claims of ESP
(extrasensory perception). It is also why Steve and I rejected Einstein’s
immaterial force fields in "Universal Cycle Theory: Neomechanics of the
Hierarchically Infinite Universe." Fields devoid of matter can do nothing
(i.e., if m = 0, then F = 0), although that is what you get when you deny
aether.
The
mass in the P = mv equation, of course, is defined as inertial mass.
Unfortunately, we cannot know what it is without interacting with it.
We
usually do this by measuring gravitational mass via the equation you mentioned:
F=GMm/R2
Mass is defined here as the resistance of a
microcosm to acceleration (i.e., a change in its inertial velocity). In other
words, for gravitation to occur, a microcosm must be impacted by other
microcosms (i.e., F = ma). This is why we say that the cause of gravitation
must be a push, not a pull. There are no pulls in Newton’s laws.
Let
me clarify Newton’s First Law so we won’t have to disagree, as you indicated in
your last sentence:
By the way I do not agree
with you that inertial motion continues until....
Because gravity is always
acting on you and me. We don't have to wait.
Remember
that the First Law is an idealization about a body travelling through perfectly
empty space. There can be no gravitation in perfectly empty space. Gravitation
only occurs when there is a “gravitational pressure gradient” (Borchardt and
Puetz, 2012). According to our Neomechanical Gravitation Theory (NGT), aether-1
particles form baryonic (ordinary) matter via complexification. Aether-1
particles in and about these complexes are less active than free aether-1 particles.
This means that there will be a gravitational pressure gradient surrounding
every bit of baryonic matter in the universe. The farther one is from a massive
microcosm, the more active and more “free” that the aether-1 will
be. This produces a pressure gradient near every microcosm akin to the pressure
gradient seen in Earth’s atmosphere—only in reverse. Thus, any baryonic
microcosm that gets close enough to Earth to be within its “gravitational field”
will be impacted by more active aether-1 particles on the side away
from Earth than on the side facing Earth.
Bob,
you are correct in surmising that there are no true inertial motions. One would
have to be an aether denier to believe that. The perfectly empty space required
by Newton’s First Law is impossible. It is only an idealization, even though it
is the best one ever devised. Even the aether-1 particles moving
under their own inertia must be impacted by other aether-1 particles
as well as by the aether-2 particles of which they must be
comprised. All this differs so much from mainstream theory because we use the Eighth
Assumption of Science, infinity (The universe is infinite, both in the
microcosmic and macrocosmic directions). Not only are aether particles
infinitely subdividable, but inertial motions are dependent on infinity
as well. Each inertial microcosm must have gotten its motion from some other microcosm ad infinitum.
This is yet another of the infinite number of reasons that the universe is
infinite and could have no beginning.
References
Borchardt,
Glenn, and Puetz, S.J., 2012, Neomechanical gravitation theory
(http://www.worldsci.org/pdf/abstracts/abstracts_6529.pdf), in Volk, Greg,
Proceedings of the Natural Philosophy Alliance, 19th Conference of the NPA,
25-28 July: Albuquerque, NM, Natural Philosophy Alliance, Mt. Airy, MD, v. 9,
p. 53-58.
Nagel,
Ernest, 1961, The structure of science: New York, Harcourt Brace and World, 618
p.
Puetz,
S.J., and Borchardt, Glenn, 2011, Universal cycle theory: Neomechanics of the
hierarchically infinite universe: Denver, Outskirts Press
(www.universalcycletheory.com), 626 p.
2 comments:
Glenn writes:
"... According to our Neomechanical Gravitation Theory (NGT) ... a gravitational pressure gradient ... impacted by more active aether-1 particles on the side away from Earth than on the side facing Earth."
How does this compare with La Place's aether "pressure theory" of gravity?
... and how do you respond to the prolific mainstream objections?
Secondarily, are the aether-1 particles that control gravity the same aether particle that act as the media for light waves? If so, would light travel slower in the dense media near planets than in the space between planets?
Bill:
Thanks for the questions. First, we know that gravitation must be a push and not a pull. Newton’s laws of motion do not have pushes. As I have pointed out before, Newton proposed a push theory involving pressure differences similar to our Neomechanical Gravitation Theory (NGT)(http://thescientificworldview.blogspot.com/2011/12/neomechanical-theory-of-gravitation.html). Laplace pointed out that Le Sage’s push theory of gravitation could not be correct unless gravitation occurred at a velocity at least a hundred million times the speed of light.
Being aether deniers, the mainstream dismisses all push theories out of hand. They continue to believe that gravitation is a pull or the result of Einstein’s perfectly empty, but nevertheless curved space. Note that, in the mainstream, any paper that mentions aether as a real possibility will be automatically rejected.
We speculate in "Universal Cycle Theory" and in our paper (http://www.worldsci.org/pdf/abstracts/abstracts_6529.pdf) that aether-1 particles are the medium for both light and gravitation. Remember, that in our theory, baryonic (ordinary) matter is formed as a complex from aether-1. The formation of a complex always involves a slowing down of the constituents that form the complex. The same thing happens with baryonic matter. For example, sodium and chlorine ions in water are much more active than those forming salt crystals. Thus, aether-1 activity (and thereby pressure and density) increases away from baryonic matter—just the opposite of what you suggest. This means, of course, that the velocity of light will increase with distance from baryonic matter. I have mentioned (http://thescientificworldview.blogspot.com/2012/05/aethereal-redshift.html) that this is responsible for the “gravitational redshift” that occurs when light leaves a massive body. It has nothing to do with gravitation, but everything to do with the density of the transmitting medium.
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