20240115

Is Time Velocity?

PSI Blog 20240115 Is Time Velocity?


How Einstein’s Relativity obscured a simple concept.



Photo by Robin Pierre on Unsplash

 

Good question from responder David Thomson:

 

“Is t=v?” In other words, is time equal to velocity?

 

The simple answer is NO.

 

However, the question gives me a chance to explain what relativity really is and the difference between time/motion and the measurement of such. With all things in the Infinite Universe being in motion with respect to all other things we must realize all motions are relative (Lucretius and Galileo).

 

You could be driving your auto at a velocity of 68 mph (0.03 km/s) when you calculate that measurement with reference to some point on Earth. You also would have a velocity of 30 km/s in your motion around the Sun and 240 km/s around the center of the Milky Way. So the measure of velocity always is relative—to something else. That something else is what we call a “referent” or “reference frame.”

 

BTW: This is one of the ways in which Einstein fell on his own petard. By theoretically eliminating the medium for light (aether), he had to make wild claims for light’s velocity. He said that c would be constant for all observers (referents). Whenever measurements turned out differently, he then had to claim time was like an object that could be dilated or compressed. This was silly, since time is motion and motion cannot be dilated or compressed.

 

Actually, light, like sound, has a constant velocity because, like sound, it is a wave in a medium (aether) with its velocity being controlled by that medium. If an observer gets a different measurement for the velocity either for light or sound it is because the medium has changed or the motion of the observer has changed. We don’t speak of “time dilation” in the case of sound and we should not do it in the case of light.

 

The measurement of time itself is relative. We use the rotation of Earth to calculate what we regard as seconds, hours, years, etc. Thus, when we calculate velocity, we must divide the distance something moves (d) by, in effect, another distance something moves (t). Both distances are relative and, in each case, we must remember there always must be a referent.

 

Of necessity all this must be circular similar to the way in which we must answer other questions concerning the Infinite Universe. Infinity always “passes the buck.” For instance, when we ask where did the ingredients that produced a particular thing come from, the answer is always the same: From somewhere else.

 

One way to remember the difference between time and the measurement of time is this: The dinosaurs experienced time (the motion of matter), but they did not measure it.

 

Another good question, this time from Anon:

 

“With infinity and motion of microcosmic and macrocosmic particles, there is a natural unit at every level…  Wouldn't there be a natural unit for motion [that parallels the one for] matter?”

 

Strictly speaking, we only can measure things and their effects. Things have XYZ dimensions and exist. Motion does not, so it is impossible to measure without using things in the measurement. As far as I am aware, the best attempt at achieving what you suggest was Planck’s constant involving what he considered “the smallest unit of motion.” In my own calculations, I speculated that would be the motion occurring when an aether particle collided with other matter. That is how I used Planck’s constant to estimate a highly speculative maximum mass of 10-47 g for aether particles.[1] Of course, infinity implies there are even smaller particles, but I doubt we would ever be able to measure an even smaller “unit of motion.”

 

 

PSI Blog 20240115

 

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[1] Borchardt, Glenn, 2017, Infinite Universe Theory: Berkeley, California, Progressive Science Institute, Appendix. [http://go.glennborchardt.com/IUTebook].

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